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…we shall call whatever must always remain purely subjective and is completely incapable of developing a representation of an object, by the familiar name of feeling. Within this passage, it is quite clear that when Kant talks about the view of flavor, he was mainly focused on the feelings that the representation of an object generates, rather than on the notion one benefits from the object.
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Nevertheless, I believe it must not be construed that Kant advocates pure subjectivism immediately, as he seems to give more focus on the feelings of pleasure or displeasure of the subject in the visual experience. We will have later that subjective feeling beauty (which usually results either to a feeling of pleasure or displeasure) has a priori bases rendering it universal.
At first glance, it seems to me that the term “subjective universality” is illogical. I’ll try to raise questions which verify this aspect apparently. How can a judgment of taste be both subjective and universal at the same time? Is it possible to make a subjective judgment of taste that is “universally acceptable?
” If I argue that Mideo Cruz’ Politeismo is a lovely installation art, may i expect that everyone would trust me? Isn’t it a common experience whereby people (who’ve different artistic backgrounds) disagree concerning whether a certain masterpiece of design or performance is beautiful or not? When Kant speaks of the universality of our common sense of taste, what he appears to drive at is that everyone (actually) must be amenable to whatever we feel in the aesthetic experience.
In other words, my wisdom of taste regarding a piece of art must be a universally accepted evaluation and not only generally (in which particular case, not everyone agrees). However, the question still remains unanswered concerning how subjectivity (and inter-subjectivity insofar as all topics will need to have the same wisdom) becomes common.